21 January 2014
Supreme Court
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BISWANATH BHATTACHARYA Vs UNION OF INDIA .

Bench: H.L. GOKHALE,J. CHELAMESWAR
Case number: C.A. No.-000772-000773 / 2014
Diary number: 26194 / 2007
Advocates: PRATIBHA JAIN Vs B. V. BALARAM DAS


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Reportable

IN THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA

CIVIL APPELLATE JURISDICTION

CIVIL APPEAL NOS.  772-773 OF 2014 [Arising out of SLP (Civil) Nos.16872-16873 of 2007]  

Biswanath Bhattacharya …Appellant

Versus

Union of India & Others …Respondents

J U D G M E N T

Chelameswar, J.

1. Leave granted.

2. These  two  appeals  are  preferred  against  the  final  

judgment dated 9th August 2007 passed by the Calcutta  

High Court in FMA No.206 of 2003 and order dated 30th  

August 2007 in Review Application bearing RVW No.2372  

of 2007 dismissing the said review application filed by the  

appellant herein.

3. The  facts  leading  to  the  instant  litigation  are  as  

follows:

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4. The appellant was initially detained by order dated  

19.12.1974  under  the  provisions  of  the  Maintenance  of  

Internal  Security  Act,  1971  (since  repealed)  and  later  

under  the  provisions  of  the  Conservation  of  Foreign  

Exchange  and  Prevention  of  Smuggling  Activities  Act,  

1974 (hereinafter referred to as the “COFEPOSA”) on the  

ground that he in collaboration with his brother, who was  

living in  London at  that  point  of  time,  was indulging in  

activities  which  are  prejudicial  to  the  conservation  of  

foreign  exchange.   The  appellant  unsuccessfully  

challenged  the  detention  order.   He  was  eventually  

released in 1977.   

5. While  he  was  in  custody,  the  second  respondent  

issued a notice dated 4th March 1977 under section 6(1) of  

the  Smugglers  and  Foreign  Exchange  Manipulators  

(Forefeiture of Property) Act, 1976 (hereinafter referred to  

as  “the  Act”)  calling  upon  the  appellant  to  explain  the  

sources of his income out of which he had acquired the  

assets  described  in  the  schedule  to  the  notice.   Some  

correspondence ensued between the second respondent  

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on  one  hand  and  the  wife  of  the  appellant  and  the  

appellant on the other hand, the details of which may not  

be necessary for the time being.  

6. Eventually  on  27th November  1989,  the  second  

respondent passed an order under section 7(1) of the Act  

forfeiting the properties mentioned in the schedule to the  

said order.

7. Aggrieved by the said order, an appeal was carried to  

the Appellate Tribunal constituted under section 12 of the  

Act.   The  appeal  was  partly  allowed  setting  aside  the  

forfeiture of two items of the properties.  

8. Not  satisfied  with  the  Appellate  Authority’s  

conclusion,  the  appellant  challenged  the  same  in  writ  

petition No. C.O. No.10543 (W) of 1991 before the High  

Court of Calcutta.  In the said writ petition, the appellant  

also prayed for two declarations – (1) that the Act is illegal  

and ultra vires the Constitution and (2) that the detention  

of the appellant under the COFEPOSA by the order dated  

19th December 1974 was illegal and void – a collateral and  

second round of attack.

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9. Learned Single Judge of the Calcutta High Court by  

an  order  dated  10th May  2002  partly  allowed  the  writ  

petition holding that the forfeiture of the property by the  

second respondent as confirmed by the Appellate Tribunal  

was illegal  on the ground that the notice under section  

6(1)  of  the  Act  dated  4th March  1977  was  not  in  

accordance with the law as the notice did not contain the  

reasons which constituted the basis for the belief of the  

competent authority that the appellant illegally acquired  

the scheduled properties.  

10. Aggrieved by the order of the learned Single Judge,  

the respondents herein carried the matter in appeal to the  

Division Bench.  By the judgment under appeal, the appeal  

was allowed.

11. It  appears  from  the  judgment  under  appeal  that  

though the  appellant  sought  a  declaration  that  the  Act  

(SAFEMA) is unconstitutional, such a plea was not pressed  

before the learned Single Judge.1 1 On perusal of the judgment and order of the Learned Single Judge it appears that  although the vires of the said Act was under challenge the respondent No.1 only  asked for  cancellation of the order of detention issued under Section 3 of the  COFEPOSA and the orders passed by the competent authority so merged in the  appellate authority under section 6(1) of the SAFEMA as well as prayed for release  of  the  properties  confiscated by the appellate authority  in  terms of  the  order  

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12. Before us,  the appellant made three submissions –  

(1) that the notice issued under Section 6 of the Act is  

defective  and  therefore  illegal  as  the  notice  did  not  

contain the reasons which made the competent authority  

believe that the notice scheduled properties are illegally  

acquired properties. In other words, the reasons were not  

communicated  to  the  appellant;  (2)  that  the  forfeiture,  

such as  the one provided under  the Act,  is  violative of  

Article  20  of  the  Constitution  of  India;  and  (3)  in  the  

alternative,  it  is  argued –  that  the  High  Court  failed  to  

consider  the  question  whether  the  decision  of  the  

competent  authority  as  confirmed  by  the  appellate  

authority  is  sustainable  and  therefore,  the  matter  is  

required  to  be  remitted  to  the  High  Court  for  an  

appropriate  consideration  of  the  legality  of  order  of  

forfeiture.

13. Regarding  the  non  communication  of  the  reasons,  

the judgment under appeal recorded as follows:

“The  matter  may  be  looked  into  from  another angle. In 1976 he was under detention.  His  wife  replied  to  the  said  notice  without  complaining of non-supply of reasoning.  After his  

impugned therein.

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release  the  respondent  No.1  gave  a  further  rejoinder by adopting what had been said by his  wife.  The authority did not proceed against him  until  he was served with the reasoning in 1988.  The  respondent  No.1  was  also  afforded  opportunity  to  deal  with  the  reasonings  in  his  rejoinder.  The competent authority after affording  him  opportunity  of  hearing  passed  a  detailed  reasoned  order.   He  preferred  an  appeal.   The  appeal was allowed in part that too by a detailed  reasoned order. Hence, we do not find any reason  to  hold  that  the  fundamental  right  of  the  respondent No.1 was infringed.”

It  appears  from  the  record  that  initially  notice  dated  

4.3.1977 under Section 6(1) was issued at a point of time  

when  the  appellant  was  under  preventive  detention.  

Subsequently, by a communication dated 1st June, 1988,  

the  recorded  reasons  for  the  belief  which  led  to  the  

issuance  of  notice  under  Section  6(1)  of  the  Act  was  

served on the appellant.  The appellant not only filed a  

rejoinder  to  the  said  notice  but  he  was  also  given  a  

hearing before an order of forfeiture under Section 7 was  

passed.  It  is  in  the  background  of  the  abovementioned  

facts we are required to consider the submission that the  

High Court erred in coming to the conclusion that notice  

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under  Section  6(1)  did  not  vitiate2 the  subsequent  

proceedings.   

14. In support of the submission, learned counsel for the  

appellant very heavily relied upon a judgment of this Court  

in Ajantha Industries and others v. Central Board of  

Direct Taxes and others, (1976) 1 SCC 1001.  It was a  

case where this court had to consider the legality of the  

order  under  Section  127  transferring  the  ‘case’  of  the  

Ajantha Industries.  

15. Section 127 of the Income Tax Act, 1961 empowers  

the authorities (mentioned therein) to transfer “any case”  

(explained  in  the  said  section)  from  one  Income  Tax  

Officer  to  another.   Further,  the  section  stipulates  that  

before such an order of transfer is made, two conditions  

are required to be complied with – (1) that the assessee  

must be given a reasonable opportunity to explain why his  

case  should  not  be  transferred;  and  (2)  the  authority  2   The respondent No.1 for the first time in the writ petition contended that the notice under Section   6(1) was bad due to non-supply of reasons whereas it would appear that the reasons were supplied as   and when asked for. Delayed supply of reasons, in our view, did not vitiate the subsequent orders of the  competent authority as well as appellate authority.  Show cause notice was served in 1976.  It was not  proceeded with till 1988 when reasons were supplied.  Order was passed by the competent authority   upon affording adequate opportunity of hearing.  The respondent No.1 availed the remedy of appeal  where his appeal was partly allowed.  With deepest regard we have for the learned single Judge, His  Lordship  was  perhaps  not  right  in  interfering  with  the  show cause  notice  at  the  stage  when  the  respondent  No.1 availed of the remedies  in law and became partly successful  before the appellate  authority.

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transferring  the  case  is  required  to  record  the  reasons  

which led him to initiate the proceedings.   It appears from  

the judgment that though first of the abovementioned two  

requirements  was  complied  with,  it  was  found  that  no  

reasons were recorded much less communicated.  Dealing  

with  the  legality  of  such  an  order,  this  Court  held  that  

there is a requirement of not only recording the reasons  

for the decision to transfer the case but also such reasons  

are required to be communicated to the assessee.  

16. Though section 127 expressly provided for recording  

of reasons it did not expressly provide communicating the  

same to the assessee.  Still,  this Court held that such a  

communication is mandatory.

“10. The reason for recording of reasons in the order and  making these reasons known to the assessee is to enable an  opportunity  to  the  assessee  to  approach  the  High  Court  under  its  writ  jurisdiction  under  Article  226  of  the  Constitution  or  even  this  Court  under  Article  136  of  the  Constitution in an appropriate case for challenging the order,  inter  alia,  either  on  the  ground  that  it  is  mala  fide  or  arbitrary  or  that  it  is  based on irrelevant  and extraneous  considerations.  Whether  such  a  writ  or  special  leave  application ultimately fails is not relevant for a decision of  the question.

11. We  are  clearly  of  opinion  that  the  requirement  of  recording  reasons  under  Section  127(1)  is  a  mandatory  direction under the law.”    

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17. In our view, such a conclusion must be understood in  

the light of the observation of the Court that there was no  

provision of appeal or revision under the Income Tax Act  

against an order of transfer.   For the same reason, this  

Court  distinguished  and  declined  to  follow  an  earlier  

judgment in S. Narayanappa v. The Commissioner of   

Income-tax  AIR  1967  SC  523  where  this  Court  on  an  

interpretation of Section 34 of the Income Tax Act, 1922,  

opined to the contra.  Section 34 provided for re-opening  

of  the  assessment  with  the  prior  sanction  of  the  

Commissioner,  if  the income tax officer  has ‘reasons to  

believe’  that  taxable  income had  been  under-assessed.  

Dealing with the question whether the reasons which led  

the Commissioner to accord sanction for the initiation of  

proceedings  under  section  34  are  required  to  be  

communicated to the assessee, this Court held –  

“There is no requirement in any of the provisions  of the Act or any section laying down as a condition  for  the  initiation  of  the  proceedings  that  the  reasons which induced the Commissioner to accord  sanction  to  proceed  under  S.34  must  be  communicated to the assessee.”

18. In Ajantha Industries case, Narayanappa’s case  

was distinguished on the ground –  

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”When an order under Section 34 is made the  aggrieved  assessee  can  agitate  the  matter  in  appeal  against  the  assessment  order,  but  an  assessee  against  whom  an  order  of  transfer  is  made  has  no  such  remedy  under  the  Act  to  question  the  order  of  transfer.   Besides,  the  aggrieved assessee on receipt of the notice under  Section 34 may even satisfy the Income-tax Offier  that  there  were  no  reasons  for  reopening  the  assessment.  Such an opportunity is not available  to  an  assessee  under  Section  127(1)  of  the  Act.  The  above  decision  is,  therefore,  clearly  distinguishable.”

19. We  reject  the  submission  of  the  appellant  for  the  

following reasons.   Firstly,  there is  no express statutory  

requirement to communicate the reasons which led to the  

issuance of notice under Section 6 of the Act.  Secondly,  

the  reasons,  though  not  initially  supplied  alongwith  the  

notice  dated  4.3.1977,  were  subsequently  supplied  

thereby  enabling  the  appellant  to  effectively  meet  the  

case of the respondents.  Thirdly, we are of the opinion  

that the case on hand is squarely covered by the ratio of  

Narayanappa  case.   The appellant  could  have  

effectively  convinced  the  respondents  by  producing  the  

appropriate material  that further steps in furtherance to  

the notice under Section 6 need not be taken.  Apart from  

that, an order of forfeiture is an appealable order where  

the correctness of the decision under Section 7 to forfeit  

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the  properties  could  be  examined.    We  do  not  see  

anything in the ratio of  Ajantha Industries case which  

lays down a universal principle that whenever a statute  

requires  some  reasons  to  be  recorded  before  initiating  

action, the reasons must necessarily be communicated.

20. Now, we deal with the second submission. The  Act  

enables  the  Government  of  India  to  forfeit  “illegally  

acquired property” of any person to whom the Act is made  

applicable.   The  Act  is  made applicable  to  the  persons  

specified in section 2(2)3.  Five categories of persons are  3 Section  2. Application—(1) The provisions of this Act shall apply only to the persons specified in   sub-section (2).

(2) The persons referred to in sub-section(1) are the following, namely:—

(a) every person— (i) who has been convicted under the Sea Customs Act, 1878 (8 of  1878), or the Customs Act, 1962 (52 of 1962), of an offence in relation to  goods of a value exceeding one lakh of rupees; or

(ii) who has been convicted under the Foreign Exchange Regulation  Act, 1947 (7 of 1947), or the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973 (46 of  1973), of an offence, the amount of value involved in which exceeds one  lakh of rupees; or

(iii) who have been convicted under the Sea Customs Act, 1878 (8 of  1878),  or  the  Customs  Act,  1962  (52  of  1962),  has  been  convicted  subsequently under either of those Acts; or

(iv) who  having  been  convicted  under  the  Foreign  Exchange  Regulation Act, 1947 (7 of 1947), or the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act,  1973 (46 of 1973), has been convicted subsequently under either of those  Acts;

(b) every person in respect of whom an order of detention has been made under  the Conservation of Foreign Exchange and prevention of Smuggling Activities Act,  1974 (52 of 1974):

Provided that— (i) such order of detention being an order to which the provisions of  

section 9 or section 12A of the said Act do not apply, has not been revoked  on the report of the Advisory Board under section 8 of the said Act or before  the receipt of the report of the Advisory Board or before making a reference  to the Advisory Board; or

(ii) such order of detention being an order to which the provisions of  section 9 of the said Act apply, has not been revoked before the expiry of  the time for, or on the basis of, the review under sub-section (3) of section 9  

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covered thereunder.  Clause (a) – persons who have been  

convicted under various enactments referred to therein;  

clause  (b)  -  persons  in  respect  of  whom  an  order  of  

detention has been made under the COFEPOSA (subject to  

certain conditions/exceptions the details of which are not  or  on the  report  of  the  Advisory  Board  under  section 8,  read  with sub- section (2) of section 9 of the said Act; or

(iii) such order of  detention, being an order to which the provisions of  section 12A of the said Act apply, has not been revoked before the expiry of  the time for, or on the basis of, the first review under sub-section (3) of that  section, or on the basis of the report of the Advisory Board under section 8,  read with sub-section (6) of section 12A, of that Act; or

(iv) such  order  of  detention  has  not  been  set  aside  by  a  court  of  competent jurisdiction;  

(c) every person who is a relative of a person referred to in clause (a) or clause  (b);

(d) every associate of person referred to in clause (a) or clause (b); (e) any holder  of  any property which was at  any time previously held by a  

person referred to in clause (a) or clause (b) unless the present holder or, as the case  may be, any one who held such property after such person and before the present  holder, is or was a transferee in good faith for adequate consideration.  

Explanation 1.— For the purposes of sub-clause (i) of clause (a), the value of any  goods in relation to which a person has been convicted of an offence shall be the wholesale price of the  goods in the ordinary course of trade in India as on the date of the commission of the offence.

Explanation 2.—  For the purpose of clause ©, “relative” in relation to a person,   means—

(i) spouse of the person; (ii) brother or sister of the person; (iii) brother or sister of the spouse of person; (iv) any lineal ascendant or descendant of the person; (v) any lineal ascendant or descendant of the spouse of the person; (vi) spouse of a person referred to in clause (ii), clause (iii), clause (iv) or clause  

(v); (vii) any lineal descendant of a person referred to in clause (ii) or clause (iii).

Explanation 3.— For the purposes of clause (d), “associate”, in relation to a person,  means—

(i) any  individual  who  had  been  or  is  residing  in  the  residential  premises  (including out houses) of such person;

(ii) any  individual  who had  been  or  is  managing  the  affairs  or  keeping  the  accounts of such person;

(iii) any association of persons, body of individuals, partnership firms, or private  company within the meaning of the Companies Act, 1956 (1 of 1956), of which such  person had been or is a member, partner or director;

(iv) any  individual  who had  been  or  is  a  member,  partner  or  director  of  an  association of  persons,  body of individuals,  partnership  firm, or  private company  within the meaning of the Companies when such person had been or is a member,   

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necessary for our purpose); clause (c) – persons who are  

relatives of persons referred to in clause (a) or clause (b).  

Expression “relative” is itself explained in explanation 2.  

Clause  (d)  –  every  associate  of  persons  referred  to  in  

clause  (a)  or  clause  (b).   Once  again  the  expression  

“associate”  is  explained  under  explanation  3  to  sub-

section (2).  Clause (e) – subsequent holders of property  

which at some point of time belonged to persons referred  

to either in clause (a) or clause (b).

21. Section 4 makes it unlawful (for any person to whom  

the Act applies) to hold any illegally acquired property and  

it further declares that such property shall be liable to be  

forfeited  to  the  Central  Government  (following  the  

procedure prescribed under the Act).   The procedure is  partner or director of such association, body, partnership firm of a private company;

(v) any  person  who  had  been  or  is  managing  the  affairs,  or  keeping  the  accounts,  of  any association  of  persons,  body of  individuals,  partnership  firm or  private company referred to in clause (iii);

(vi) the trustee of any trust, where,— (a) the trust has been created by such person; or (b) the value of the assets contributed by such person (including the  

value of the assets, if any, contributed by him earlier) to the trust amounts,   on the date on which the contribution is made, to not less than twenty per  cent, of the value of the assets of the trust on that date;

(vii) where  the  competent  authority,  for  reasons  to  be  recorded  in  writing  considers  that  any properties  of  such person are held on his behalf  by any other  person, such other person.

Explanation 4.—  For the avoidance of doubt, it is hereby provided that the question  whether any person is a person to whom the provisions of this Act apply may be determined with   reference to any facts, circumstances or events including any conviction or detention  which occurred   or took place before the commencement of this Act.

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contained under sections 6 and 7 of the Act.  Section 8  

prescribes  the special  rule  of  evidence which shifts  the  

burden of proving that any property specified in the notice  

under section 6 is  not illegally acquired property of the  

noticee.  Section 6 inter alia postulates that having regard  

to the value of the property held by any person (to whom  

the Act applies) and his known sources of income, if the  

“competent  authority”  (notified  under  section  5)  has  

reason  to  believe  that  such  properties  are  “illegally  

acquired  properties”,  the  competent  authority  is  

authorized  to  call  upon  the  holder  of  the  property  to  

‘indicate’ the source of his income etc. which enabled the  

acquisition  of  such  property  along  with  necessary  

evidence.  It also authorizes the competent authority to  

call upon the noticee to show cause as to why all or any of  

such  properties  mentioned  in  the  notice  should  not  be  

declared illegally acquired properties and be forfeited to  

the  Central  Government.   Section  7  provides  for  a  

reasonable opportunity of being heard after the receipt of  

response to the notice under section 6 to the noticee and  

requires  the  competent  authority  to  record  a  finding  

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whether  all  or  any  of  the  properties  in  question  are  

illegally  acquired properties.  Section 7 also provides for  

certain  incidental  matters  the  details  of  which  are  not  

necessary for the present purpose.    

22. Expression “illegally acquired property” is defined in  

elaborate  terms  under  the  Act4.   Broadly  speaking  the  

definition covers two types of properties:

1) acquired by the income or earnings; and

2) assets derived or obtained

4 Section 3(c) “illegally acquired property”, in relation to any person to whom this Act applies, means, —

(i) any property acquired by such person, whether before or after the commencement of  this Act, wholly or partly out of or by means of any income, earnings or assets derived or  obtained from or attributable to any activity prohibited by or under any law for the time  being in force relating to any matter in respect of which Parliament has power to make  laws; or

(ii) any property acquired by such person, whether before or after the commencement of  this Act, wholly or partly out of or by means of any income, earnings or assets in respect   of which any such law has been contravened; or

(iii) any property acquired by such person, whether before or after the commencement of  this Act, wholly or partly out of or by means of any income, earnings or assets the source  of which cannot be proved and which cannot be shown to be attributable to any act or  thing done in respect of any matter in relation to which Parliament has no power to make  laws; or

(iv) any property acquired by such person, whether before or after commencement of this  Act,  for a consideration, or by any means, wholly or partly traceable to any property   referred to in sub-clauses (i) to (ii) or the income or earnings from such property;

and includes—t (A) any  property  held  by  such  person  which  would  have  been,  in  

relation to any previous holder thereof, illegally acquired property under this  clause if such previous holder had not ceased to hold it, unless such person  or any other person who held the property at any time after such previous  holder or, where there are two or more such previous holders, the last of  such  previous  holders  is  or  was  a  transferee  in  good faith  for  adequate  consideration;

(B) any property acquired by such person, whether before or after the  commencement of this Act, for a consideration, or by any means, wholly or  partly traceable to any property falling under item (A), or the income or  earnings therefrom.

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from or attributable to any activity which is prohibited by  

or under a law in force.   Such law must be a law with  

respect to which parliament has the power to make law.  A  

complete analysis of the definition in all its facets may not  

be necessary for our purpose.  

23. From the language and the scheme of the Act it does  

not  appear  that  the  application  of  the  Act  is  limited  to  

persons who either suffered a conviction under one of the  

acts specified in section 2(2)(a) the Act or detained under  

the COFEPOSA subsequent to the commencement of the  

Act  in  question.   On  the  other  hand,  explanation  4  to  

section 2 expressly declares as follows:  

“Explanation 4.—For the avoidance of doubt, it is hereby  provided  that  the  question  whether  any  person  is  a  person to whom the provisions of this Act apply may be  determined with reference to any facts, circumstances  or events (including any conviction or detention which  occurred  or  took  place  before  the  commencement  of  this Act).”

Apart from that we have already taken note of the  

fact that there are other categories of persons to whom  

the Act applies.

24. The appellant happens to be a person to whom the  

Act applies.  He was detained under the provisions of the  

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COFEPOSA.  However, such a detention was anterior to the  

commencement of the Act, which came into force on 25th  

January 1976,  while the detention order  was passed on  

19th December 1974.  It appears from the judgment under  

appeal that the appellant was eventually set at liberty in  

1977.  

25. Section 7(3) of the Act provides for forfeiture of the  

illegally acquired property of the persons to whom the Act  

is  made  applicable  after  an  appropriate  enquiry  

contemplated under Sections 6 and 7 of the Act.  In other  

words, the Act provides for the deprivation of the (illegally  

acquired)  property  of  the  persons  to  whom  the  Act  

applies.  The question which we were called upon to deal  

with  is  whether  such  a  deprivation  is  consistent  with  

Article  205 of  the  Constitution  of  India  in  the  specific  

factual setting of the case coupled with the explanation 4  

to section 2 which reads as follows:

“Explanation 4.—For the avoidance of doubt, it is hereby  provided  that  the  question  whether  any  person  is  a  

5   20.  Protection  in  respect  of  conviction  for  offences.— (1)  No  person  shal l  be  convicted  of  any  offence  except  for  vio la t ion  of  a  law  in  force  at  the  t ime  of  the  commission  of  the  Act  charged  as  an  offence,  nor  be   sub jected  to  a  penalty  greater  than  that  which  might  have  been  in fl icted  under  the  law  in  force  at  the  t ime  of   the commission of  the offence.

(2)  No  person  shall  be  prosecu ted and punished for the  same  offence more than once.

(3)  No  person  accused  of  any  offence shall  be  compel led  to  be a wi tness  agains t  himsel f .

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person to whom the provisions of this Act apply may be  determined with reference to any facts, circumstances  or events (including any conviction or detention which  occurred  or  took  place  before  the  commencement  of  this Act).”

The answer to the question depends upon whether such  

deprivation is  a  penalty within the meaning of  the said  

expression occurring in Article 20.  

26. Article 20 contains one of the most basic guarantees  

to the subjects of the Republic of India.  The Article in so  

far as is relevant for our purpose stipulates two things:-

 That  no  person  shall  be  convicted  of  any  offence except for violation of the law in force  at  the  time  of  the  commission  of  the  act  charged as an offence; and

 That  no  person  shall  be  subjected  to  a  penalty greater than that which might have  been inflicted under the law in force at the  time of the commission of the offence.

27. It is a well settled principle of constitutional law that  

sovereign  legislative  bodies  can  make  laws  with  

retrospective  operation;  and  can  make  laws  whose  

operation is  dependent upon facts or  events anterior  to  

the making of the law.  However, criminal law is excepted  

from such general Rule, under another equally well settled  

principle  of  constitutional  law,  i.e.  no  ex  post  facto  

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legislation  is  permissible  with  respect  to  criminal  law.  

Article 20 contains such exception to the general authority  

of  the  sovereign  legislature  functioning  under  the  

Constitution to make retrospective or retroactive laws.   

28. The submission of the appellant is that since the Act  

provides for a forfeiture of the property of the appellant on  

the  ground  that  the  appellant  was  detained  under  the  

COFEPOSA,  the  proposed  forfeiture  is  nothing  but  a  

penalty within the meaning of the expression under Article  

20 of the Constitution.  Such an inference is inevitable in  

the light of the definition of “illegally acquired property”  

which by definition (under the Act)  is  property acquired  

either “out of” or by means “of any income, earnings …”  

“obtained from or attributable to any activity prohibited by  

or under any law …”.  On the other hand, if the forfeiture  

contemplated by the Act is not treated as a penalty for the  

alleged violation of  law on the part  of  the appellant,  it  

would  be  plain  confiscation  of  the  property  of  the  

appellant by the State without any factual justification or  

the constitutional authority.

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29. The learned counsel for the appellant further argued  

that  the  forfeiture contemplated under  the Act  whether  

based on  proven guilt  or  suspicion  of  involvement  in  a  

certain  specified activity  prohibited by the Customs Act  

can only be a ‘penalty’ attracting the prohibition of Article  

20 of the Constitution of India.  It is submitted that under  

Section 536 of the Indian Penal Code, forfeiture of property  

is  one  of  the  prescribed  punishments  for  some  of  the  

offences covered under the Indian Penal Code.

30. Learned counsel for the appellant placing reliance on  

R.S. Joshi, Sales Tax Officer, Gujarat and Others  v.  

Ajit Mills Ltd. and Another, (1977) 4 SCC 98 submitted  

that  a  Constitution Bench of  this  Court  also  opined the  

expression “forfeiture” to mean “a penalty for breach of a  

prohibitory direction”.7  6 Section 53. Punishments.—The punishments to which offenders are liable under the provisions of this  Code are—

First—Death; Secondly.—Imprisonment for life; Thirdly.— Omitted Fourthly.—Imprisonment, which is of two descriptions, namely.—

(1) Rigorous, that is, with hard labour; (2) Simple;

Fifthly.—Forfeiture of property; Sixthly.—Fine.  

7 18. Coming to “forfeiture’, what is the true character of a “forfeiture’? Is it punitive in infliction, or  merely another form of exaction of money by one from another? If it is penal, it falls within implied   powers. If it is an act of mere transference of money from the dealer to the State, then it falls outside   the legislative entry. Such is the essence of the decisions which we will presently consider. There was a  contention that the expression “forfeiture” did not denote a penalty. This, perhaps,  may have to be   decided in the specific setting of a statute. But, speaking generally, and having in mind the object of  

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31. On the other hand, the learned Addl. Solicitor General  

appearing for the respondent submitted that the forfeiture  

contemplated under the Act is not a ‘penalty’ within the  

meaning of that expression occurring in Article 20 but only  

a deprivation of property of a legislatively identified class  Section 37 read with Section 46, we are inclined to the view that forfeiture has a punitive impact.   Black’s Legal Dictionary states that “to forfeit” is “to lose, or lose the right to, by, some error, fault,   offence or crime’, “to incur a penalty’. “Forfeiture’, as judicially annotated, is “a punishment annexed  by law to some illegal act or negligence . . .’. “something imposed as a punishment for an offence or   delinquency’. The word, in this sense, is frequently associated with the word “penalty’. According to  Black’s Legal Dictionary,

The  terms  “fine”,  “forfeiture”,  and  “penalty”,  are  often  used  loosely,  and  even  confusedly : but when a discrimination is made, the word “penalty” is found to be generic in its   character, including both fine and forfeiture. A “fine” is a pecuniary penalty, and is commonly  (perhaps always) to be collected by suit in some form. A “forfeiture” is a penalty by which one  loses his rights and interest in his property.

More  explicitly,  the  U.S.  Supreme Court  has  explained  the concept  of  “forfeiture”  in  the  context of statutory construction. Chief Justice Taney, in the State of Maryland v. Baltimore & Ohio  RR Co., 11 L.Ed. 714, 722  observed :

“And a provision, as in this case, that the party shall forfeit a particular sum, in case  he does not perform an act  required  by law,  has always,  in  the construction of  statutes,  been  regarded  not  as  a  contract  with  the  delinquent  party,  but  as  the  punishment  for  an  offence.  Undoubtedly,  in  the  case  of  individuals,  the  word  forfeit  is  construed  to  be  the  language  of  contract, because contract is the only mode in which one person can become liable to pay a penalty  to another for breach of duty, or the failure to perform an obligation. In legislative proceedings,  however, the construction is otherwise, and a forfeiture is always to be regarded as a punishment   inflicted for a violation of some duty enjoined upon the party by law ; and such, very clearly, is the  meaning of the word in the act in question.”

19. The same connotation has been imparted by our Court too. A Bench has held [Bankura  Municipality v.Lalji Raja & Sons, 1953 Cri LJ 1101] :

“According to the dictionary meaning of the word ‘forfeiture’ the loss or the deprivation of  goods has got to be in consequence of a crime, offence or breach of engagement or has to be by  way of penalty of the transgression or a punishment for an offence. Unless the loss or deprivation  of the goods is by way of a penalty or punishment for a crime, offence or breach of engagement it   would not come within the definition of forfeiture.”

This word “forfeiture” must bear the same meaning of a penalty for breach of a prohibitory  direction. The fact that there is arithmetical identity, assuming it to be so, between the figures of the   illegal collections made by the dealers and the amounts forfeited to the State cannot create a conceptual  confusion that what is provided is not punishment but a transference of funds. If this view be correct,  and we hold so, the legislature, by inflicting the forfeiture, does not go outside the crease when it hits   out against the dealer and deprives him, by the penalty of the law, of the amount illegally gathered   from the customers. The Criminal Procedure Code, Customs & Excise Laws and several other penal  statutes in India have used diction which accepts forfeiture as a kind of penalty. When discussing the   rulings of this Court we will explore whether this true nature of “forfeiture” is contradicted by anything   we can find in Sections 37(1),  46 or  63.  Even here  we may reject  the notion that  a  penalty or  a   punishment cannot be cast in the form of an absolute or no-fault liability but must be preceded by mens  rea. The classical view that “no mens rea, no crime” has long ago been eroded and several laws in India  

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of persons – in the event of their inability to explain (to the  

satisfaction of the State) that they had legitimate sources  

of funds for the acquisition of such property. The learned  

Addl. Solicitor General further submitted that while in the  

case of that class of persons covered under Section 2(2)

(a)  of  the  Act,  the  forfeiture  though  has  a  remote  

connection with the commission of a crime and conviction;  

with  reference  to  the  other  four  classes  of  persons  to  

whom the Act is made applicable under Section 2(2) (b) to  

(e),  the  forfeiture  has  nothing  to  do  with  any  crime or  

conviction.   Therefore, to say that the forfeiture under the  

Act is hit by the prohibition under Article 20 is without any  

basis  in  law.    The learned Addl.  Solicitor  General  also  

relied upon The State of West Bengal  v.  S.K. Ghosh,  

[AIR 1963 SC 255] and R.S. Joshi (supra) in support of his  

submission.  Alternatively,  the  learned  Addl.  Solicitor  

General submitted that in view of the fact that the Act is  

included in the Ninth Schedule, the Act is immune from  

any attack on the ground that it violates any one of the  

and abroad,  especially  regarding  economic crimes and departmental  penalties,  have created  severe  punishments even where the offences have been defined to exclude mens rea. Therefore, the contention  that Section 37(1) fastens a heavy liability regardless of fault has no force in depriving the forfeiture of  the character of penalty.

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fundamental rights contained in Part III of the Constitution  

of India, as was held by a Constitution Bench of this Court  

in  Attorney General for India & Others v. Amratlal   

Prajivandas and others (1994) 5 SCC 54.

32. Lord Green in Bidie v. General Accident, Fire and  

Life  Assurance  Corporation [(1948)  2  All  ER  995  at  

998] said in the context of ascertaining the meaning of an  

expression in any statute that “Few words in the English  

language have a natural or ordinary meaning in the sense  

that they must be so read that their meaning is entirely  

independent of their context”.

33. Chief  Justice  Sikri  in  His  Holiness  Kesavananda  

Bharati  Sripadagalvaru  v.  State  of  Kerala  and  

another (1973) 4 SCC 225 dwelt on this subject referring  

to  two  English  decisions  and  one  American  decision  

stating in substance that the meaning of a word occurring  

in a statute cannot be ascertained without examining the  

context  and  also  the  scheme  of  the  Act  in  which  the  

expression occurs.8

8 56.   In construing the expression “amendment of this Constitution” I must look at the whole scheme  of the Constitution.   It is not right to construe words in vacuum and then insert the meaning into an  article.    Lord Green observed in  Bidie v. General Accident, Fire and Life Assurance Corporation   (1948) 2 All ER 995, 998.  

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 34. The  regime  of  forfeiture  of  property  contemplated  

under  the  Act  is  not  new.   At  least  from 1944  such  a  

regime (though not identical but similar to the impugned  

one) is  prevalent in this country.   Two ordinances were  

made  in  1943  and  1944,  subsequently  amended  by  

another  ordinance  in  1945,  all  called  Criminal  Law  

Amendment Ordinances, which continued to be in force in  

this country by virtue of operation of Article 372 and some  

anterior laws - the details of which may not be necessary  

for the present purpose. Under the 1943 Ordinance, two  

“The first  thing one  has  to  do,  I  venture  to  think,  in  construing words  in  a  Section of an Act of Parliament is not to take those words in  vacuo,  so to speak, and  attribute to them what is sometimes called their natural or ordinary meaning.   Few words  in the English language have a natural or ordinary meaning in the sense that they must be  so read  that  their  meaning is  entirely  independent  of  their  context.    The method of  construing statutes that I prefer is not to take particular words and attribute to them a sort  of prima facie meaning which you may have to displace or modify.   It is to read the  statute as a whole and ask oneself the question : ‘In this state, in this context, relating to   this subject-matter, what is the true meaning of that words’.”

57.    I  respectfully  adopt  the  reasoning  of  Lord  Green  in  construing the  expression  “the  amendment of the Constitution.”

58. Lord Green is not alone in this approach.    In  Bourne v.  Norwich Crematorium,   (1967) 2 ALL ER 576, 578  it is observed:

“English words derive colour from those which surround them.   Sentences are  not  mere collections of  words  to  be taken out  of  the sentence  defined  separately  by  reference to the dictionary or decided cases, and then put back again into the sentence  with the meaning which you have assigned to them as separate words, so as to give the   sentence  or  phrase  a  meaning  which  as  a  sentence  or  phrase  it  cannot  bear  without  distortion of the English language.”

59.   Holmes, J., in Towne v. Eisner, 245 US 418, 425  had the same thought.   He observed :

“A word is not a crystal,  transparent  and unchanged;  it  is  the skin of  living  thought and may vary greatly in colour and content according to the circumstances and  the time in which it is used.”

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special Tribunals were constituted to try cases allotted to  

them “in the first Schedule in respect of such charges of  

offence  prescribed  under  the  second  Schedule  etc.”.  

Essentially,  such  cases  were  cases  either  of  charge  of  

receipt  of  illegal  gratification  by  a  public  servant  or  

embezzlement of public money etc.  The 1944 Ordinance  

provided  for  the  attachment  of  the  money  or  other  

property  which  is  believed  to  have  been  procured  by  

means of one of the above mentioned scheduled offences  

by the offender.  Such attached property is required to be  

disposed  of  as  provided  under  section  13  of  the  said  

Ordinance.   Under  Section  12  of  the  Ordinance,  the  

Criminal  Court  trying  a  scheduled  offence  is  obliged  to  

ascertain the amount or value of the property procured by  

the accused by means of the offence. Under section 13(3),  

it  is  provided  that  so  much  of  the  attached  property  

referred to earlier equivalent to the value ascertained by  

the  Criminal  Court  under  section  12  is  required  to  be  

forfeited to the State.

35. Dealing with the question – whether such forfeiture  

(in the factual setting of the case) violated Article 20 of  

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the  Constitution  of  India?,  a  Constitution  Bench  of  this  

Court  held  that  the  forfeiture  contemplated  in  the  

Ordinance was not a penalty within the meaning of Article  

20 but it is only a speedier mode of recovery of the money  

embezzled by the accused.9  

36. In R.S. Joshi case, the question was whether it was  

permissible for the State Legislature to enact that sums  

collected  by  dealers  by  way  of  sales  tax  but  are  not  

exigible under the State Law – indeed prohibited by it –  

shall be forfeited to the exchequer.

37. The  question  -  whether  such  a  forfeiture  was  a  

penalty violating Article 20 did not arise in the facts of that  

case.   The  discussion  revolved  around  the  question  -  

whether such a forfeiture is a penalty for the violation of a  

prohibition  contained  under  section  46  of  the  relevant  

Sales Tax Act?   The contravention of section 46 is made  

punishable with imprisonment and fine under section 63 of  

the said Act.  Apart from that, section 37 of the said Act  9 The State of West Bengal v. S.K. Ghosh, AIR 1963 SC 255

Para 15. .. We are therefore of opinion that forfeiture provided in S. 13(3) in case of offences   which involve the embezzlement etc. of Government money or property is really a speedier method of  realizing government money or property as compared to a suit which it is not disputed the Government  could bring for realizing the money or property and is not punishment or penalty within the meaning of   Article 20(1).  Such a suit could ordinarily be brought without in any way affecting the right to realize   the fine that may have been imposed by a criminal Court in connection with the offence.

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provided  for  a  departmental  proceeding  against  the  

dealers who violated the prohibition under section 46.  The  

said departmental proceeding could result in the forfeiture  

of “.. any sums collected by any person by way of tax in  

contravention of section 46 ..”.  The legal issue before this  

Court was – whether the State Legislature had necessary  

competence to provide for such forfeiture?  The answer to  

the query depended upon whether such a forfeiture is a  

penalty for the violation of law made by the State for the  

levy and collection of sales tax.  If it is not a penalty but a  

plain transfer of money (illegally collected by the dealer)  

to the State it would be incompetent for the legislature to  

make  such  a  provision  in  the  light  of  an  earlier  

Constitution  Bench  decision  of  this  Court  in  R.  Abdul  

Quader & Co. v. STO, AIR 1964 SC 922.10

10 The first question therefore that falls for consideration is whether it was open to the State legislature   under its powers under Entry 54 of List II to make a provision to the effect that money collected by  way of tax, even though it was not due as a tax under the Act, shall be made over to Government. Now  it is clear that the sums so collected by way of tax are not in fact tax exigible under the Act. So it   cannot be said that the State legislature was directly legislating for the imposition of sales or purchase  tax under Entry 54 of List II  when it made such a provision, for on the face of the provision, the  amount, though collected by way of tax, was not exigible as tax under the law. The provision however  is attempted to be justified on the ground that though it may not be open to a State legislature to make  provision for the recovery of an amount which is not a tax under Entry 54 of List II in a law made for   that  purpose,  it  would still  be  open  to  the  legislature  to  provide  for  paying  over  all  the  amounts  collected by way of tax by persons, even though they really are not exigible as tax, as part of the   incidental and ancillary power to make provision for the levy and collection of such tax. Now there is  no  dispute  that  the  heads  of  legislation  in  the  various  Lists  in  the  Seventh  Schedule  should  be  interpreted  widely  so  as  to  take  in  all  matters  which  are  of  a  character  incidental  to  the  topics   mentioned therein.  Even so, there is a limit to such incidental or ancillary power flowing from the  legislative entries in the various Lists in the Seventh Schedule. These incidental and ancillary powers  have to be exercised in aid of the main topic of legislation, which, in the present case, is a tax on sale or   purchase of goods. All powers necessary for the levy and collection of the tax concerned and for seeing  

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38. As explained above, the issue and the ratio decidendi  

of R.S. Joshi case is entirely different and has nothing to  

do with the application of Article 20 of the Constitution of  

India.

39. To  understand  the  exact  nature  of  the  forfeiture  

contemplated under the (SAFEMA) Act it is necessary to  

examine the nature of the property which is sought to be  

forfeited and also the persons from whom such forfeiture  

is sought to be made.  As already noticed, the Act is made  

applicable  to  five  classes  of  persons  specified  under  

section  2.   In  other  words,  the  properties  of  persons  

belonging to any one of the said five categories only could  

be forfeited under the Act.   Even with reference to the  

that  the  tax  is  not  evaded  are  comprised  within  the  ambit  of  the  legislative  entry  as  ancillary  or  incidental. But where the legislation under the relevant entry proceeds on the basis that the amount  concerned is not a tax exigible under the law made under that entry, but even so lays down that though  it is not exigible under the law, it shall be paid over to Government, merely because some dealers by  mistake or otherwise have collected it as tax, it is difficult to see how such provision can be ancillary or  incidental to the collection of tax legitimately due under a law made under the relevant taxing entry.  We do not think that the ambit of ancillary or incidental power goes to the extent of permitting the   legislature to provide that though the amount collected — may be wrongly — by way of tax is not  exigible  under  the  law  as  made  under  the  relevant  taxing  entry,  it  shall  still  be  paid  over  to   Government, as if it were tax. The legislature cannot under Entry 54 of List II make a provision to the  effect that even though a certain amount collected is not a tax on the sale or purchase of goods as laid   down by the law, it  will  still  be collected as  if  it  was such a tax.  This is  what  Section 11(2) has  provided. Such a provision cannot in our opinion be treated as coming within incidental or ancillary  powers which the legislature has got under the relevant taxing entry to ensure that the tax is levied and  collected  and that  its  evasion becomes impossible.  We are  therefore  of opinion that  the provision   contained in Section 11(2) cannot be made under Entry 54 of List II and cannot be justified even as an  incidental or ancillary provision permitted under that entry.

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properties  held  by  any  one  falling  under  any  of  the  

abovementioned  five  categories,  their  entire  property  

cannot  be  forfeited  except  the  property  which  is  

determined  to  be  illegally  acquired  property  as  defined  

under section 3(c) of the Act.  Of all the five categories of  

persons  to  whom the Act  is  made applicable,  only  one  

category specified under section 2(2)(a) happens to be of  

persons who are found guilty of an offence under one of  

the  enactments  mentioned therein  and  convicted.   The  

other  four  categories  of  persons  to  whom  the  Act  is  

applicable  are  persons  unconnected  with  any  crime  or  

conviction under any law while the category of  persons  

falling under section 2(2)(b) are persons who are believed  

by  the  State  to  be  violators  of  law.   The  other  three  

categories  are  simply  persons  who  are  associated  with  

either of the two categories mentioned in section 2(2)(a)  

and (b).   At  least  with reference to  the four  categories  

other  than  the  one  covered  by  section  2(2)(a),  the  

forfeiture/deprivation of the property is not a consequence  

of any conviction for an offence.

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40. Therefore,  with  reference  to  these  four  categories,  

the  question  of  violation  of  Article  20  does  not  arise.  

Insofar as first category mentioned above, in our opinion,  

Article  20  would  have  no  application  for  the  reason,  

conviction is only a factor by which the Parliament chose  

to  identify  the  persons  to  whom  the  Act  be  made  

applicable.   The Act does not provide for the confiscation  

of the properties of all the convicts falling under Section  

2(2)(a) or detenues falling under Section 2(2)(b).  Section  

6 of the Act authorises the competent authority to initiate  

proceedings of forfeiture only if it has reasons to believe  

(such  reasons  for  belief  are  required  to  be  recorded in  

writing) that all or some of the properties of the persons to  

whom  the  Act  is  applicable  are  illegally  acquired  

properties.   The  conviction  or  the  preventive  detention  

contemplated under Section 2 is not the basis or cause of  

the  confiscation  but  the  factual  basis  for  a  rebuttable  

presumption to enable the State to initiate proceedings to  

examine whether the properties held by such persons are  

illegally acquired properties.   It  is  notorious that people  

carrying on activities such as smuggling to make money  

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are  very  clandestine  in  their  activity.    Direct  proof  is  

difficult if not impossible.  The nature of the activity and  

the harm it does to the community provide a sufficiently  

rational  basis  for  the  legislature  to  make  such  an  

assumption.  More  particularly,  Section  6  specifically  

stipulates  the  parameters  which  should  guide  the  

competent authority in forming an opinion, they are; the  

value  of  the  property  and  the  known  sources  of  the  

income, earnings etc. of the person who is sought to be  

proceeded against.  Even in the case of such persons, the  

Act  does  not  mandate  such  an  enquiry  against  all  the  

assets of such persons.  An enquiry is limited to such of  

the  assets  which  the  competent  authority  believes  (to  

start with) are beyond the financial  ability of the holder  

having  regard  to  his  known  and  legitimate  sources  of  

income, earnings etc.  Connection with the conviction is  

too remote and, therefore, in our opinion, would not be hit  

by  the  prohibition  contained  under  Article  20  of  the  

Constitution of India.

41. If a subject acquires property by means which are not  

legally approved, sovereign would be perfectly justified to  

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deprive such persons of the enjoyment of such ill-gotten  

wealth.   There is a public interest in ensuring that persons  

who cannot establish that they have legitimate sources to  

acquire the assets held by them do not enjoy such wealth.  

Such  a  deprivation,  in  our  opinion,  would  certainly  be  

consistent with the requirement of Article 300A and 14 of  

the Constitution which prevent the State from arbitrarily  

depriving a subject of his property.   

42. Whether there is a right to hold property which is the  

product  of  crime  is  a  question  examined  in  many  

jurisdictions.   To  understand  the  substance  of  such  

examination,  we  can  profitably  extract  from  an  article  

published  in  the  Journal  of  Financial  Crime,  2004  by  

Anthony Kennedy.11

“..It has been suggested that a logical interpretation of  Art. 1 of the First Protocol of the European Convention  on Human Rights is:

‘Everyone  is  entitled  to  own  whatever  property  they have (lawfully) acquired …..’  

hence  implying  that  they  do  not  have  a  right  under  Art.  1  to  own  property  which  has  been  unlawfully acquired.    This point was argued in  the  Irish  High  Court  in  Gilligan  v  The  Criminal  Assets Bureau, namely that where a defendant is  in possession or control over assets which directly  

11 Head of Legal Casework, Northern Ireland for the Assets Recovery Agency in his  Article ‘Justifying the civil recovery of criminal proceeds’ published in the Journal  of Financial Crime, 2004 Vol.12, Iss.1.

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or indirectly constitute the proceeds of crime, he  has no property rights in those assets and no valid  title  to  them,  whether  protected  by  the  Irish  Constitution or by any other law.   A similar view  seems  to  have  been  expressed  earlier  in  a  dissenting opinion in Welch v United Kingdom : ‘in  my opinion, the confiscation of property acquired  by crime, even without express prior legislation is  not contrary to Article 7 of the Convention, nor to  Article 1 of the First Protocol.’   This principle has  also  been  explored  in  US  jurisprudence.    In  United States v. Vanhorn a defendant convicted of  fraud and money laundering was not entitled to  the  return  of  the  seized  proceeds  since  they  amounted to contraband which he had no right to  possess.   In United States v Dusenbery the court  held that, because the respondent conceded that  he  used  drug  proceeds  to  purchase  a  car  and  other  personal  property,  he  had  no  ownership  interest in the property and thus could not seek a  remedy  against  the  government’s  decision  to  destroy  the property  without  recourse to  formal  forfeiture proceedings.   The UK government has  impliedly adopted this perspective, stating that:

‘…. It is important to bear in mind the purpose of  civil recovery, namely to establish as a matter of  civil  law that there is no right to enjoy property  that derives from unlawful conduct.”

43. Non-conviction  based  asset  forfeiture  model  also  

known as  Civil  Forfeiture  Legislation  gained currency  in  

various countries: United States of America, Italy, Ireland,  

South  Africa,  UK,  Australia  and  certain  provinces  of  

Canada.

   44. Anthony Kennedy conceptualised the civil  forfeiture  

regime in the following words:-

“Civil  forfeiture  represents  a  move  from  a  crime  and  punishment model of justice to a preventive model of justice.  

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It seeks to take illegally obtained property out of the possession  of organised crime figures so as to prevent them, first,  from  using  it  as  working capital  for  future  crimes  and,  secondly,  from flaunting it in such a way as they become role models for  others to follow into a lifestyle  of acquisitive crime.    Civil  recovery is therefore not aimed at punishing behaviour but at  removing  the  ‘trophies’  of  past  criminal  behaviour  and  the  means to commit future criminal behaviour.   While it would  clearly  be  more  desirable  if  successful  criminal  proceedings  could be instituted, the operative theory is that ‘half a loaf is  better than no bread’.”

45. For all the above-mentioned reasons, we are of the  

opinion that the Act is not violative of Article 20 of the  

Constitution.  Even otherwise as was rightly pointed out by  

the learned Addl. Solicitor General, in view of its inclusion  

in the IXth Schedule, the Act is immune from attack on the  

ground that it violates any of the rights guaranteed under  

Part  III  of  the  Constitution  by  virtue  of  the  declaration  

under Article 31-B.

46. Now we are required to consider the alternative and  

last submission i.e., in view of the failure of the High Court  

to examine the tenability of the order of the forfeiture as  

confirmed by the appellate tribunal the matter is required  

to  be  remitted  to  the  High  Court  for  appropriate  

consideration.  This submission is required to be rejected.  

We  have  carefully  gone  through  the  copy  of  the  writ  

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petition  (a  copy  of  which  is  available  on  record)  from  

which the instant appeal arises.   

47. Except challenging the order of forfeiture on the two  

legal grounds discussed earlier in this judgement, there is  

no  other  ground  on  which  correctness  of  the  order  of  

forfeiture is assailed in the writ petition.  For the first time  

in  this  appeal,  an  attempt  is  made  to  argue  that  the  

conclusions  drawn by  the  competent  authority  that  the  

properties forfeited are illegally acquired - is not justified  

on  an  appropriate  appreciation  of  defence  of  the  

appellant.   In  other  words,  the  appellant  seeks  

reappreciation  of  the  evidence  without  even  an  

appropriate pleading in the writ petition.  It is a different  

matter  that  the  High  Court  in  exercise  of  its  writ  

jurisdiction  does  not  normally  reappreciate  evidence.  

Looked at any angle, we see no reason to remit the matter  

to the High Court.

48. In the result, the appeals, being devoid of merit, are  

dismissed.  

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………………………………….J.                                                 (H.L. GOKHALE)

………………………………….J.                                         (J. CHELAMESWAR )

New Delhi; January 21, 2014.

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